• FinjaminPoach@lemmy.world
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        2 days ago

        It’s interesting because i’m thinking of the “Norman Conquest” but you can fairly reasonably apply it to e.g the foudnation of the union (~1707) when England + Scotland became Britain, or the Roman distinction of Britannia as 1 or 2 defined provinces.

        Possibly true also of angles and saxons, possibly true of celtic migration, possibly true of the pre-celtic migration…

        That’s life

    • MediumGray@lemmy.ca
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      2 days ago

      To be fair that is pretty much every country when you look back in history. Not trying to let the UK off the hook here though.